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Is it at all possible?Doctor, I know I've been asking you about that many times, but can you again state your opinion?
As you remember I had high risk exposure 28 Nov 2000. Jan. 9 I got cold-like ting, then in mid-march 2001 I got flu. July 28 2001 I had HIV antibody test, and negative result. Then Sept. 1 2001 I got a horrbile rash masulopapular, red 1 cm diameter and raised patches on my legs, upper parts, that vanished 4 days later. Then Sept. 22 2001 my husband got flu/cold like sypomtoms that stayed for a week and then vanished. Since then he has been O.K. and I stil have a bit raised temperature and white cover on my tounge. My question is; Is it possible that at that time;that is Sept 1 I was having seroconversion, as late as 9 months from the very risk exposure and that is why the viral load was so high at that time and my husband got infected from me that late not before and so I might be infected with HIV despite the negative antibody test in July so 8 months from the risky situation? Please spare me some time on my dilemma.
Re: Is it at all possible?Carol, as I said many times, the ARS comes in the first couple of weeks after infection. Most commonly it comes on day 5-7. What you describe in March (4 months later) and Sept (10 months later) CAN NOT be ARS from an exposure in Nov 2000.
Now, don't ask me what else you could have. I've told you before that you need to see a physician. I can't diagnose anyone over a website. thanks GR [quote] Doctor, I know I've been asking you about that many times, but can you again state your opinion. As you remember I had high risk exposure 28 Nov 2000... [/quote]
2 posts • Page 1 of 1
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