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If not PID, then what?I'm new to the forum and in need of answers. I haven't been able to get a straight answer from my doctor. There is a bit of a back story, so sorry for the long post. \
In 2004, I gave birth to my son at 24 weeks 1 day. Against all odds, he survived and is thriving beyond all hopes. He is not gestationally four yet and is already reading. He is small but active and has NO health issues. He was given a 45% chance of living and of the 45% that live, 90% have severe health issues. He is my 10 percenter! I got pregnant again in August. On December 19th, at 18 weeks 2 days, all the same thing happened again. I had no spotting or major pain. Minor contractions started so mildly that I thought that it was just my round ligament stretching. I called the doc and we set up appointment for next morning. By 10 pm, I went to the bathroom and felt my sac completely descended. They were going to try to use gravity to get the sac back in, do a cerclage, and put me on bedrest, but it wasn't to be. My sac ruptured, and 26 hours later, my son was born dead. Two weeks later, the doc did several cultures, another PAP, and a biopsy of my uterus. All vaginal cultures came back negative - NO diseases, NO strep B or other bacterias. PAP was normal, but the biopsy showed inflammation in my uterus. He is treating me with ten days of Augmiten (SP?). It is the strongest I think they give you. I was already thinking that I could have PID in my uterus, but wasn't sure if you could have it in your uterus and not the falopian tubes. Is this possible? I asked him about PID but he said I'd never be able to get pregnant with PID. I thought I had read that there had been rare cases of woman who had PID affect their uterus but not the falopian tubes. When I was very young, almost 20 years ago, I was sexually assaulted and ended us with clamydia from the guy. I think I went to the doctor and got treated within a week of the symptoms starting. I was diagnosed with genital warts when I was 20 (probably from him). My husband of five years has to treat outbreaks of this (as I gave it to him) but I don't ever have noticilbe problems with it. Did I have clamydia long enough to possibly cause PID and could I have had this inflammation for all this time and had no symptoms. I do have off discharge occasionally, but nothing extreme. I have normal periods but pretty bad cramps, but I always have bad cramps. One month before I was raped (when I was 16) I had a cyst rupture on my ovaries and have always had bad cramps with my period. I know this is long, and I am sharing WAY too much, but if it helps me understand this and prevent another miscarriage (as my husband and I, with the doctor's encouragement, plan to get pregnant again), I don't care. I need to know if this could be PID before I invest in trying to get pregnant again, or what else could the inflammation be if not PID? Oh yeah, I forgot to explain that when my first son was born, they sent my placenta to pathology, as they did with the second. Both times, my placenta was diagnosed as inflammed and infected with unknown cause. My doc thinks that whatever the infection is, I could have had it for these four years since my first son was born. IS THAT POSSIBLE WITH NO SYMPTOMS? Please help if you have any knowledge of this. Thanks!
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